IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019 is updated here on June 2, 2019, after exam. Candidates can check answers of all 100 questions using answer key of UPSC Prelims 2019 Paper 1. They are published for Set A, Set B, Set C, Set D. Using it, know all correct answers of General Studies Paper 1 as well as calculate score. Marks obtained in Paper 1 are important for result of IAS 2019 since it determines cut off. If one clears GS Paper 1 cut off, then he/she qualifies for Mains. Get here IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019 and all related details such as questions-answers, sources.
Latest: Answer Key of IAS 2019 Paper 1 has been published.
IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019
Get here UPSC Civil Services Preliminary exam answer key 2019 for Paper 1. Whereas paper 1 is held from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM on June 2, 2019, answer key for it has been made available a few hours after that. Likewise, answer key of IAS 2019 Paper 2 can also be checked.
Get here IAS 2019 Paper 1 Question & Answers date wise
2019-06-02
Qs.1: With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.4: Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ans :
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: http://www.pngrb.gov.in/the-act.html
Qs.5: With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.6: Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.12: With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.13: Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.15: In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans :
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: Basic Economic Concepts [NCERT Class 11 and 12]
Qs.16: Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
Ans :
First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
Rajamannar Committee (1969)
Sarkaria Commission (1983)
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Qs.17: Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
Qs.18: Consider the following statements
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Ans :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CAMPA_bill
Qs.19: In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans :
1 and 2
1, 3 and 4
3, 4 and 5
2 and 5
Source: Laxmikanth
Qs.20: With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans :
1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: NCERT Class 11 Economics, https://www.nipfp.org.in/media/pdf/books/BK_33/Chapters/1.%20Import%20Substitution%20Strategy%20Of%20Economic%20Development.pdf , https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Five-Year_Plans_of_India
Qs.21: With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Ans :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Source: Laxmikanth
Qs.22: Consider the following statements
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.23: With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Qs.24: Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
Qs.25: In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
Ans :
Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
Absence of restraint
Opportunity to do whatever one likes
Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
Source: Indian Preamble
Qs.26: Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
Ans :
Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports
Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
Following an expansionary monetary policy
Source: NCERT class 11 and 12 Economics
Qs.27: Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.28: Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
Qs.29: Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
Ans :
Japan
Russia
The United Kingdom
The United States of America
Qs.30: The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
Qs.31: Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Qs.32: With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Ans :
The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/500307/
Qs.33: With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.34: Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ans :
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Qs.35: Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.37: Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.38: Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Qs.40: Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.41: In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.44: Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.45: In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.46: 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.47: Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
Ans :
'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
'Gravitational waves' were detected.
Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
Qs.48: Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.51: With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Qs.52: With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Ans :
The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Qs.53: The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
Ans :
International Monetary Fund
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
World Economic Forum
World Bank
Source: http://reports.weforum.org/
Qs.54: Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ans :
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: Spectrum Book page-566-567
Qs.55: With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Source: Spectrum, Bipin Chandra’s India’s Struggle for independence Page-130
Qs.56: Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization -- Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League --Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha -- Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement -- E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Ans :
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: Spectrum , Wikipedia
Qs.57: Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
Ans :
Chanhudaro
Kot Diji
Sohgaura
Desalpur
Source: Sohgaura is near Gorakhpur, which falls outside the Harappan Area Map.
Qs.58: In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
Qs.59: Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
Qs.62: Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.63: Consider the following pairs
Famous place -- River
Pandharpur -- Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli -- Cauvery
Hampi -- Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Qs.65: In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
Ans :
Creating the artificial rains in some regions
Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
Qs.68: Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Qs.69: Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife -- Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer -- Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin -- Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat -- Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Qs.72: Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans :
1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Qs.73: Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.74: With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ans :
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Mahatma_Gandhi,_his_life,_writings_and_speeches/Indentured_Labour, https://scroll.in/article/680616/even-gandhi-apostle-of-peace-wanted-indians-to-fight-in-world-war-i, Statement 3- Page 421, Spectrum(A brief history of modern India)
Qs.75: With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person -- Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru -- President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy -- Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi -- General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Source: GC LEONG, PAGE NO-6
Qs.81: Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.83: In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Qs.85: Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.86: Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans :
1 and 2
3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4
Source: Laxmikanth Page 25.2 and 25.3
Qs.87: The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
Qs.88: Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Qs.89: Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans :
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Source: Article 102 only mentions the term “Office of Profit” without defining it.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/390434/
Qs.90: Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Qs.91: Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
Qs.92: For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans :
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Qs.93: Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
Qs.94: Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Qs.95: Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
Qs.96: Consider the following pairs:
Sea -- Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea -- Albania
2. Black Sea -- Croatia
3. Gaspian Sea -- Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea -- Morocco
5. Red Sea -- Syria
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
Ans :
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Source: Any atlas
Qs.97: Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
Qs.98: Consider the following pairs:
Glacier -- River
1. Bandarpunch -- Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri -- Chenab
3. Milam -- Mandakini
4. Siachen -- Nubra
5. Zemu -- Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Qs.100: Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
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Marks As Per IAS Answer Key 2019 Paper 1
Your score as per answer key of UPSC IAS 2019 Pre Paper 1 = Number of correct answers * 2 – Number of incorrect answers * 2/3
Who Publishes IAS 2019 Answer Key for Paper 1?
You may be aware that UPSC publishes official IAS Answer Keys much later; sometime after declaration of final IAS Result! Candidates prefer to use other answer keys until then to get an idea of solutions and be able to predict their score. Coaching centres, individual teachers and mentors come to the rescue! They, who have been guiding UPSC aspirants for a long time, take question papers from candidates after exam and solve them. Thus, IAS 2019 Answer Key for Paper 1 by coaching centres, individuals, teachers, mentors are published.
Accuracy Of Answer Key of UPSC Civil Services 2019 Prelims Paper 1
As mentioned above, not UPSC, but others solve paper and provide UPSC Prelims 2019 Answer Key Paper 1 Set A, B, C, D. Of course UPSC is the final word on correct answers of all questions in Paper 1. Nevertheless, those who publish answer keys try their best to ensure that only correct answers are present in IAS Answer Key. Even then, there may be some differences between official and unofficial answer keys. Therefore candidates are requested to use their best judgement while using unofficial answer keys. Use them only for reference purpose.
Key highlights of IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019
Date of exam
02 Jun 2019
Exam timings
9:30 AM to 11:30 AM
Number of questions
100
Exam duration
2 hours
Marks for correct answers
+2
Negative marking for incorrect answers
-2/3
Marks for unattempted questions
0
Cut off
To be announced after result
Last time cut offs were 98 (General), 96.66 (OBC), 84 (SC), 83.34 (ST)
Topics On Which Questions Are Asked in IAS Paper 1 / General Studies Paper I Syllabus
Current events of national and international importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
General Science
IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019 by UPSC
Union Public Service Commission is responsible for conduct of Civil Services Preliminary Exam. It includes accepting its application forms, issuing admit card, conducting exam, declaring result, and publishing answer keys. However, answer key of IAS 2019 Paper 1 are released after final result. As and when they come, candidates can download them at upsc.gov.in. Following are steps to download IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019 by UPSC from upsc.gov.in:
Go to upsc.gov.in.
Then scroll down and click on Answer Keys.
Now search for Civil Services.
Then click on General Studies Paper 1 in order to download IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019 by UPSC.
When UPSC releases IAS 2019 Answer Key for Paper 1, it will be updated here. You can simply download it. Whereas answer key can be simply downloaded, to check result, you will need roll number that was generated in your admit card of IAS 2019.
Significance of UPSC IAS Paper 1 Answer Key 2019
It is a long journey, from beginning of preparation, to filling up application form of IAS exam, then appearing in exam. After appearing in the exam the candidates have a curiosity whether they have marked correct answer or not. To resolve your problem we will provide the UPSC IAS 2019 Paper 1 Answer Key on the examination day. So, that you can cross-check your marked answers with the Answer Key.
You can cross check the answer as well as evaluate your marks in the examination. If you found any answer wrong in the answer key, or your marked answer is wrong then don.t worry. This answer key would be the unofficial answer key. UPSC will release official Answer key later. It’s not mandatory that the score you will calculate will be the same in the final result. Your score could be different in the final result. So, don’t follow the unofficial answer key blindly. Wait for the final Result.
